Muslimah

Question I have been married for approximately two years, and I have a daughter from my wife. I wanted some clarification about the conditions that must be fulfilled in order to complete divorce. For example, if the woman does not menstruate, and no intercourse has taken place since her last period, if the conditions are not met, can divorce be valid or not? Also, when a man divorces his wife, is it sufficient for him to say the word “talaaq (divorce)”, or is it essential for him to say: “I am giving you your divorce?” I have some problems with anger, which everyone who knows me is aware of. I am seeing my doctor about the anger. I said divorce [i.e., he said, “divorce” and did not say, for example, “you are divorced”] to my wife when we were arguing, and she was saying disrespectful things to me and asked me to divorce her. I said the word “divorce” when I was very angry, but after I came back to my senses, I regretted it. I did not really intend to divorce my wife. Now my wife ...

Question My husband divorced me while I was pregnant than before I gave birth to my child he came back and said that we are not divorced since pregnant women can’t be divorced.  So I would like to know am I really divorced or not.  My husband and I love each other very much and now we have a baby son.  Please do reply to me as soon as possible. Answer Praise be to Allaah. Shaykh Ibn Baaz (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked whether a woman may be divorced by talaaq when she is pregnant. He said: This is an idea which is common among some people. Some of the people think that a pregnant woman cannot be divorced by talaaq. I do not know where they get this idea from, for it has no basis in the words of the scholars. Rather the view of all the scholars is that a pregnant woman can be divorced by talaaq. There is consensus on this point among the scholars, and there is no dispute. Talaaq according to the Sunnah means that a woman may be divorced in two cases:...

Question I hope that you can explain the ‘iddah of a woman divorced by talaaq. Answer Praise be to Allaah. If the woman is divorced by talaaq before the man has entered upon her and been alone with her, i.e., before intercourse or intimacy with her, then she does not have to observe any ‘iddah at all. Simply by virtue of the divorce it becomes permissible for her to marry another man. But if he has entered upon her and been alone with her and had intercourse with her, then she has to observe the ‘iddah (waiting period) which takes one of the following forms: 1 – If she is pregnant then her ‘iddah lasts until the pregnancy ends and she delivers, whether that is a long time or a short one. It may so happen that he divorces her in the morning and she gives birth at noon, in which case her ‘iddah is over. Or it may be that he divorces her in Muharram and she does not give birth until Dhu’l-Hijjah, so she remains in ‘iddah for twelve months. The point is that the ‘iddah of the ...